# All Subjects Question Bank with Answers

For Assam VFA 2026 preparation. This combined bank covers Biology, Animal Husbandry, Chemistry, Physics and General Awareness, with answer keys included after each section.

## Biology and Animal Husbandry

# Biology and Animal Husbandry Question Bank

Use this after revising NCERT/HSSLC Biology and the animal husbandry notes. Target: at least 45 correct out of these 60 before moving to full mocks.

## Questions

1. Which part of DNA carries genetic information?
   A. Sequence of nitrogen bases
   B. Sugar only
   C. Phosphate only
   D. Hydrogen bond only

2. In humans, the male sex chromosomes are:
   A. XX
   B. XY
   C. YY
   D. XO

3. The process of RNA formation from DNA is:
   A. Translation
   B. Transcription
   C. Replication
   D. Mutation

4. The process of protein synthesis from mRNA is:
   A. Translation
   B. Transcription
   C. Replication
   D. Crossing over

5. The enzyme used in PCR to withstand high temperature is:
   A. Taq polymerase
   B. Pepsin
   C. Trypsin
   D. Amylase

6. The hormone that regulates blood glucose is:
   A. Insulin
   B. Adrenaline only
   C. Oxytocin only
   D. Melatonin only

7. Which organ produces bile?
   A. Liver
   B. Kidney
   C. Lung
   D. Spleen

8. The structural and functional unit of kidney is:
   A. Neuron
   B. Nephron
   C. Alveolus
   D. Villus

9. Exchange of gases in humans occurs in:
   A. Alveoli
   B. Nephrons
   C. Villi
   D. Tendons

10. The pacemaker of the heart is:
    A. SA node
    B. AV valve
    C. Aorta
    D. Vena cava

11. Which is a lymphoid organ?
    A. Spleen
    B. Pancreas
    C. Stomach
    D. Gall bladder

12. Antibodies are produced by:
    A. B lymphocytes/plasma cells
    B. RBC
    C. Platelets
    D. Neurons

13. The causal organism of malaria is:
    A. Plasmodium
    B. Salmonella
    C. Bacillus
    D. Lactobacillus

14. Curd formation is mainly due to:
    A. Lactobacillus
    B. Plasmodium
    C. Virus
    D. Yeast only

15. Rhizobium helps in:
    A. Nitrogen fixation
    B. Oxygen transport
    C. Milk secretion
    D. Blood clotting

16. The male gamete in flowering plants is carried through:
    A. Pollen tube
    B. Xylem
    C. Root hair
    D. Sepal

17. Double fertilization is seen in:
    A. Angiosperms
    B. Fungi
    C. Bacteria
    D. Algae only

18. The transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is:
    A. Pollination
    B. Fertilization
    C. Germination
    D. Transpiration

19. The first trophic level in an ecosystem is usually:
    A. Producers
    B. Herbivores
    C. Carnivores
    D. Decomposers only

20. The 10 percent law of energy transfer is associated with:
    A. Lindeman
    B. Mendel
    C. Darwin
    D. Pasteur

21. Ex-situ conservation means conservation:
    A. Outside natural habitat
    B. Inside natural habitat only
    C. Without living organisms
    D. By hunting

22. A biosphere reserve is meant to conserve:
    A. Ecosystems and biodiversity
    B. Only minerals
    C. Only roads
    D. Only factories

23. The full form of AIDS is:
    A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
    B. Active Immune Defect System
    C. Animal Infection Disease Study
    D. Acute Internal Digestive Syndrome

24. The vector of filariasis is:
    A. Culex mosquito
    B. Housefly
    C. Tick
    D. Honey bee

25. Cancer is caused by uncontrolled:
    A. Cell division
    B. Digestion
    C. Respiration
    D. Excretion

26. Artificial insemination requires proper detection of:
    A. Heat/estrus
    B. Fever only
    C. Milk fat only
    D. Body colour only

27. The period when a female animal is receptive to mating is:
    A. Estrus
    B. Lactation
    C. Dry period
    D. Weaning

28. Removal of young animal from milk feeding is called:
    A. Weaning
    B. Calving
    C. Farrowing
    D. Brooding

29. A male goat is called:
    A. Buck
    B. Ram
    C. Bull
    D. Boar

30. A young sheep is called:
    A. Lamb
    B. Kid
    C. Calf
    D. Foal

31. The normal gestation period of pig is closest to:
    A. 114 days
    B. 150 days
    C. 280 days
    D. 340 days

32. Buffalo gestation is closest to:
    A. 310 days
    B. 21 days
    C. 114 days
    D. 150 days

33. The milk-producing cells are found in:
    A. Alveoli of udder
    B. Hoof
    C. Horn
    D. Tail

34. Milk let-down is stimulated by:
    A. Oxytocin
    B. Insulin
    C. Thyroxine
    D. Glucagon

35. The common sign of mastitis is:
    A. Swollen udder and abnormal milk
    B. Green leaves
    C. Broken horn only
    D. Extra wool

36. Which disease causes vesicles in mouth and feet of cattle?
    A. FMD
    B. Rickets
    C. Scurvy
    D. Goitre

37. PPR mainly affects:
    A. Sheep and goats
    B. Fish only
    C. Bees only
    D. Horses only

38. Ranikhet disease is associated with:
    A. Poultry
    B. Cattle only
    C. Fish only
    D. Goat only

39. Black Quarter mainly affects:
    A. Cattle and buffalo
    B. Poultry only
    C. Bees only
    D. Fish only

40. Haemorrhagic Septicaemia is commonly seen in:
    A. Cattle and buffalo
    B. Human infants only
    C. Plants only
    D. Honey bees only

41. Which is an external parasite?
    A. Tick
    B. Tapeworm
    C. Liver fluke
    D. Roundworm

42. Dipping or spraying animals is useful for controlling:
    A. Ectoparasites
    B. Genetic disease
    C. Broken bones
    D. Milk lactose

43. The main purpose of livestock vaccination is:
    A. Disease prevention
    B. Immediate weight gain
    C. Changing breed
    D. Increasing horn length

44. Quarantine is especially important for:
    A. Newly purchased animals
    B. Dry fodder only
    C. Clean utensils only
    D. Dead leaves

45. A balanced ration must provide:
    A. Nutrients in correct proportion
    B. Only water
    C. Only salt
    D. Only straw

46. Mineral mixture is added to feed to prevent:
    A. Mineral deficiency
    B. Viral replication only
    C. Broken fences
    D. Low rainfall

47. Roughage is rich in:
    A. Fibre
    B. Pure fat only
    C. Antibiotic only
    D. Metal

48. Concentrates are usually rich in:
    A. Energy and/or protein
    B. Sand
    C. Water only
    D. Oxygen

49. Clean drinking water is essential for dairy animals because:
    A. Milk production requires high water intake
    B. It changes breed
    C. It stops all diseases permanently
    D. It replaces feed

50. Fodder preservation helps mainly during:
    A. Scarcity/lean season
    B. Election only
    C. Flood warning only
    D. Vaccination day only

51. Brooding is important in:
    A. Chick management
    B. Fish transport only
    C. Milk testing only
    D. Artificial insemination only

52. The gizzard is well-developed in:
    A. Birds
    B. Cattle
    C. Humans
    D. Earthworms only

53. Hatchability is related to:
    A. Eggs
    B. Milk
    C. Wool
    D. Horn

54. Coccidiosis is commonly important in:
    A. Poultry
    B. Dairy utensils only
    C. Fish nets only
    D. Crops only

55. The main aim of livestock extension work is:
    A. Transfer of improved practices to farmers
    B. Issuing driving license
    C. Building bridges
    D. Counting books

56. The most practical first-aid step for a bleeding wound is:
    A. Apply pressure and seek veterinary help
    B. Rub soil
    C. Ignore it
    D. Stop water for the herd

57. Proper disposal of carcass helps prevent:
    A. Disease spread
    B. Milk fat increase
    C. Extra egg laying
    D. Better rainfall

58. Livestock record keeping helps in:
    A. Breeding, health and production management
    B. Painting sheds only
    C. Changing soil colour
    D. Measuring river width

59. The main objective of dairy cooperative systems is:
    A. Collection, processing and marketing of milk
    B. Road repair only
    C. Mining only
    D. Exam invigilation

60. Scientific animal housing should provide:
    A. Ventilation, drainage, space and cleanliness
    B. Darkness only
    C. No water
    D. No roof

## Answer Key

1-A, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A, 10-A,
11-A, 12-A, 13-A, 14-A, 15-A, 16-A, 17-A, 18-A, 19-A, 20-A,
21-A, 22-A, 23-A, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-A, 28-A, 29-A, 30-A,
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-A, 38-A, 39-A, 40-A,
41-A, 42-A, 43-A, 44-A, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-A, 50-A,
51-A, 52-A, 53-A, 54-A, 55-A, 56-A, 57-A, 58-A, 59-A, 60-A

## Chemistry, Physics and General Awareness

# Chemistry, Physics and General Awareness Question Bank

Use this for the remaining 60 marks of the Assam VFA paper: Chemistry 20, Physics 20, General Awareness 20.

## Chemistry - 35 Questions

1. The number of atoms in one mole of any substance is:
   A. 6.022 x 10^23
   B. 9.8
   C. 3.14
   D. 1.6 x 10^-19

2. The atomic number of an element is determined by:
   A. Number of protons
   B. Number of neutrons only
   C. Atomic mass only
   D. Number of shells only

3. Isobars have the same:
   A. Mass number
   B. Atomic number
   C. Number of electrons always
   D. Chemical properties always

4. Ionic bond is formed by:
   A. Transfer of electrons
   B. Sharing of electrons only
   C. Sharing of protons
   D. Nuclear fusion

5. Covalent bond is formed by:
   A. Sharing of electrons
   B. Transfer of neutrons
   C. Loss of nucleus
   D. Formation of ions only

6. A base turns red litmus:
   A. Blue
   B. Green
   C. Yellow
   D. Colourless

7. Neutralization produces:
   A. Salt and water
   B. Only acid
   C. Only hydrogen gas
   D. Only oxygen gas

8. The formula of calcium carbonate is:
   A. CaCO3
   B. CaO
   C. CaCl2
   D. CaSO4

9. The formula of slaked lime is:
   A. Ca(OH)2
   B. CaO
   C. CaCO3
   D. NaOH

10. The most abundant gas in air is:
    A. Nitrogen
    B. Oxygen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Hydrogen

11. Electrolysis involves:
    A. Chemical change due to electric current
    B. Cooling only
    C. Filtration only
    D. Evaporation only

12. In electrochemical cells, oxidation occurs at:
    A. Anode
    B. Cathode
    C. Salt bridge
    D. Voltmeter

13. The unit of rate constant depends on:
    A. Order of reaction
    B. Colour of solution only
    C. Shape of vessel only
    D. Catalyst name only

14. Le Chatelier's principle is related to:
    A. Chemical equilibrium
    B. Atomic number
    C. Organic nomenclature only
    D. Radioactivity only

15. Molality is expressed as moles of solute per:
    A. Kilogram of solvent
    B. Litre of solution
    C. Gram of solution
    D. Mole of solvent only

16. The functional group of carboxylic acids is:
    A. -COOH
    B. -OH
    C. -CHO
    D. -CO-

17. The functional group of ketones is:
    A. -CO-
    B. -COOH
    C. -NH2
    D. -OH

18. Ethanol has formula:
    A. C2H5OH
    B. CH3COOH
    C. C6H6
    D. CH4

19. Polymer of glucose found in plants is:
    A. Starch
    B. Protein
    C. DNA
    D. Cholesterol

20. DNA contains:
    A. Deoxyribose sugar
    B. Ribose only
    C. Glycerol only
    D. Fructose only

21. The strongest intermolecular force among these is usually:
    A. Hydrogen bonding
    B. London force only
    C. Random collision
    D. Colour force

22. The ideal gas equation is:
    A. PV = nRT
    B. F = ma
    C. V = IR
    D. E = mc2

23. The oxidation state of hydrogen in most compounds is:
    A. +1
    B. -2
    C. 0 only
    D. +7

24. A reducing agent:
    A. Donates electrons
    B. Accepts electrons only
    C. Stops reaction
    D. Gives colour only

25. The common name of sodium bicarbonate is:
    A. Baking soda
    B. Washing soda
    C. Quicklime
    D. Bleaching powder

26. The formula of bleaching powder is commonly represented as:
    A. CaOCl2
    B. NaCl
    C. NaHCO3
    D. CaCO3

27. The monomer of nucleic acids is:
    A. Nucleotide
    B. Amino acid
    C. Glucose
    D. Fatty acid

28. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain:
    A. Double or triple bonds
    B. Only single bonds
    C. No carbon
    D. No hydrogen

29. Alkynes have general formula:
    A. CnH2n-2
    B. CnH2n+2
    C. CnH2n
    D. CnHn

30. The catalyst used in Haber process is:
    A. Iron
    B. Nickel only
    C. Platinum only
    D. Copper only

31. Ammonia has formula:
    A. NH3
    B. NO2
    C. N2O
    D. HNO3

32. The gas responsible for soda water fizz is:
    A. Carbon dioxide
    B. Oxygen
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Chlorine

33. A saturated solution contains:
    A. Maximum solute at a given temperature
    B. No solute
    C. Only solvent
    D. Only gas

34. The branch of chemistry dealing with carbon compounds is:
    A. Organic chemistry
    B. Nuclear physics
    C. Ecology
    D. Taxonomy

35. The pH scale normally ranges from:
    A. 0 to 14
    B. 1 to 7 only
    C. 7 to 20
    D. -10 to 0 only

## Physics - 35 Questions

36. A scalar quantity has:
    A. Magnitude only
    B. Direction only
    C. Both magnitude and direction
    D. No unit

37. Velocity is a:
    A. Vector
    B. Scalar
    C. Constant always
    D. Unitless quantity

38. Newton's second law gives relation:
    A. F = ma
    B. V = IR
    C. PV = nRT
    D. P = VI

39. The SI unit of energy is:
    A. Joule
    B. Watt
    C. Newton
    D. Tesla

40. Potential energy due to height is:
    A. mgh
    B. mv
    C. IR
    D. qV only

41. Escape velocity from earth is about:
    A. 11.2 km/s
    B. 3 km/s
    C. 340 m/s
    D. 1 km/s

42. Pressure in a liquid increases with:
    A. Depth
    B. Colour
    C. Shape of container only
    D. Sound

43. Bernoulli's principle is based on conservation of:
    A. Energy
    B. Charge
    C. Atomic number
    D. Mass number only

44. Specific heat capacity is heat required to raise temperature of:
    A. Unit mass by 1 degree
    B. Any mass by 100 degree only
    C. One litre always
    D. One mole only

45. The SI unit of temperature is:
    A. Kelvin
    B. Celsius
    C. Fahrenheit
    D. Joule

46. A transverse wave has particles vibrating:
    A. Perpendicular to wave direction
    B. Parallel only
    C. Randomly only
    D. Not at all

47. Echo is due to:
    A. Reflection of sound
    B. Refraction of light
    C. Dispersion
    D. Magnetism

48. The SI unit of resistance is:
    A. Ohm
    B. Volt
    C. Ampere
    D. Coulomb

49. Electric power is:
    A. VI
    B. V/I only
    C. I/R only
    D. q/t only

50. Kirchhoff's laws are based on conservation of:
    A. Charge and energy
    B. Mass and colour
    C. Speed only
    D. Temperature only

51. A bar magnet has:
    A. Two poles
    B. One pole
    C. No pole
    D. Four fixed poles always

52. Fleming's left-hand rule is used for:
    A. Direction of force on current-carrying conductor
    B. Direction of chemical bond
    C. Direction of digestion
    D. Direction of wind only

53. Faraday's law is related to:
    A. Electromagnetic induction
    B. Gravitation only
    C. Heat conduction only
    D. Fluid pressure only

54. The refractive index of vacuum is:
    A. 1
    B. 0
    C. 10
    D. Infinite

55. A prism disperses white light due to:
    A. Different refractive indices for different colours
    B. Absorption only
    C. Reflection only
    D. Magnetic field only

56. Myopia is corrected by:
    A. Concave lens
    B. Convex lens
    C. Plane mirror
    D. Prism only

57. Hypermetropia is corrected by:
    A. Convex lens
    B. Concave lens
    C. Concave mirror
    D. Plane glass only

58. Alpha particles carry:
    A. Positive charge
    B. Negative charge
    C. No charge
    D. Variable neutral charge

59. Half-life is related to:
    A. Radioactive decay
    B. Sound reflection
    C. Electric fuse
    D. Fluid flow

60. A p-n junction diode allows current mainly:
    A. In one direction
    B. In no direction
    C. Equally both directions always
    D. Only in vacuum

61. The unit of capacitance is:
    A. Farad
    B. Henry
    C. Tesla
    D. Weber

62. A convex mirror is used as rear-view mirror because it gives:
    A. Wider field of view
    B. Larger real image always
    C. Inverted real image only
    D. No image

63. The acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity is:
    A. Zero
    B. Infinite
    C. 9.8 always
    D. Negative always

64. The slope of displacement-time graph gives:
    A. Velocity
    B. Acceleration only
    C. Force
    D. Work

65. The slope of velocity-time graph gives:
    A. Acceleration
    B. Momentum only
    C. Power
    D. Pressure

66. The area under velocity-time graph gives:
    A. Displacement
    B. Force
    C. Mass
    D. Frequency

67. The SI unit of momentum is:
    A. kg m/s
    B. kg/m
    C. N/m
    D. J/s

68. Surface tension is the property of:
    A. Liquids
    B. Vacuum only
    C. Solids only
    D. Plasma only

69. Capillary rise is due to:
    A. Adhesion, cohesion and surface tension
    B. Nuclear force only
    C. Electric fuse
    D. Radioactivity

70. The efficiency of a machine is always:
    A. Output work/input work x 100
    B. Input work/output work x 100
    C. Force x mass
    D. Voltage/current

## General Awareness - 40 Questions

71. The Chief Minister is appointed by the:
    A. Governor
    B. President directly always
    C. Speaker
    D. Chief Justice of India

72. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
    A. Legislative Assembly
    B. Supreme Court
    C. Election Commission
    D. UPSC

73. Directive Principles are found in:
    A. Part IV
    B. Part III
    C. Part II
    D. Part X

74. Fundamental Duties are in:
    A. Part IVA
    B. Part I
    C. Part II
    D. Part V

75. The right to constitutional remedies is under:
    A. Article 32
    B. Article 14 only
    C. Article 21 only
    D. Article 370 only

76. The Lok Sabha has a normal term of:
    A. 5 years
    B. 6 years
    C. 4 years
    D. 3 years

77. The finance bill is introduced in:
    A. Lok Sabha
    B. Rajya Sabha only
    C. Supreme Court
    D. Election Commission

78. The largest state of India by area is:
    A. Rajasthan
    B. Assam
    C. Kerala
    D. Tripura

79. The smallest state of India by area is:
    A. Goa
    B. Assam
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Madhya Pradesh

80. The longest river in India is generally considered:
    A. Ganga
    B. Sabarmati
    C. Luni
    D. Mahi

81. The Brahmaputra is called Siang/Dihang when entering:
    A. Arunachal Pradesh
    B. Kerala
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Gujarat

82. Majuli is located in:
    A. Assam
    B. Odisha
    C. Tamil Nadu
    D. Haryana

83. Sattriya dance originated in:
    A. Assam
    B. Punjab
    C. Gujarat
    D. Karnataka

84. Assam is famous globally for:
    A. Tea
    B. Saffron only
    C. Desert tourism only
    D. Coal only

85. Digboi is associated with:
    A. Oil
    B. Silk only
    C. Salt lake
    D. Gold mining

86. The official animal of Assam is:
    A. One-horned rhinoceros
    B. Asiatic lion
    C. Blackbuck
    D. Snow leopard

87. The official bird of Assam is:
    A. White-winged wood duck
    B. Peacock
    C. Hornbill only
    D. Flamingo

88. The Barak Valley is mainly in southern:
    A. Assam
    B. Punjab
    C. Goa
    D. Ladakh

89. The Assam Accord was signed in:
    A. 1985
    B. 1947
    C. 1950
    D. 2001

90. The National Dairy Development Board is associated with:
    A. Dairy development
    B. Space missions
    C. Atomic research
    D. Road transport only

91. Operation Flood is associated with:
    A. Milk production/dairy development
    B. River dam only
    C. Crop burning
    D. Coal mining

92. The White Revolution in India is linked to:
    A. Milk
    B. Wheat
    C. Fish
    D. Oilseeds

93. The Blue Revolution is linked to:
    A. Fisheries
    B. Milk
    C. Eggs only
    D. Silk

94. The Green Revolution is linked to:
    A. Food grain production
    B. Milk only
    C. Poultry only
    D. Coal only

95. Kisan Credit Card scheme supports:
    A. Farmers' credit needs
    B. Passport renewal
    C. Railway ticketing
    D. University admission only

96. The National Livestock Mission supports:
    A. Livestock development and entrepreneurship
    B. Space travel
    C. Highway toll collection
    D. Airport security

97. Rashtriya Gokul Mission is linked with:
    A. Development and conservation of bovine breeds
    B. Missile production
    C. Textile dyeing
    D. School board exams

98. Fodder development is important mainly to reduce:
    A. Feed scarcity
    B. Exam fees
    C. Road accidents
    D. River erosion only

99. Livestock vaccination programmes help reduce:
    A. Disease outbreaks
    B. Rainfall
    C. Train delays
    D. Soil colour

100. Assam VFA candidates must upload proof of domicile as:
     A. Permanent Resident Certificate issued in Assam for educational purposes
     B. PAN card only
     C. Bank passbook only
     D. Library card only

101. The Assam VFA written test duration is:
     A. 120 minutes
     B. 60 minutes
     C. 180 minutes
     D. 45 minutes

102. The Assam VFA written test has:
     A. 100 questions
     B. 50 questions
     C. 200 questions
     D. 25 questions

103. Biology carries:
     A. 40 marks
     B. 20 marks
     C. 10 marks
     D. 60 marks

104. Chemistry carries:
     A. 20 marks
     B. 40 marks
     C. 5 marks
     D. 50 marks

105. Physics carries:
     A. 20 marks
     B. 40 marks
     C. 60 marks
     D. 10 marks

106. General Awareness carries:
     A. 20 marks
     B. 40 marks
     C. 50 marks
     D. 5 marks

107. The application starts on:
     A. 3 September 2026
     B. 23 September 2026
     C. 1 January 2026
     D. 26 August 2026

108. The application closes on:
     A. 23 September 2026
     B. 3 September 2026
     C. 26 January 2026
     D. 15 August 2026

109. The advertisement date is:
     A. 26 August 2026
     B. 29 August 2026
     C. 3 September 2026
     D. 23 September 2026

110. The recruitment is for:
     A. Veterinary Field Assistant and allied cadre
     B. Police constable only
     C. Bank clerk only
     D. Teacher only

## Answer Key

1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A, 7-A, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A,
11-A, 12-A, 13-A, 14-A, 15-A, 16-A, 17-A, 18-A, 19-A, 20-A,
21-A, 22-A, 23-A, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-A, 28-A, 29-A, 30-A,
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-A, 38-A, 39-A, 40-A,
41-A, 42-A, 43-A, 44-A, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-A, 50-A,
51-A, 52-A, 53-A, 54-A, 55-A, 56-A, 57-A, 58-A, 59-A, 60-A,
61-A, 62-A, 63-A, 64-A, 65-A, 66-A, 67-A, 68-A, 69-A, 70-A,
71-A, 72-A, 73-A, 74-A, 75-A, 76-A, 77-A, 78-A, 79-A, 80-A,
81-A, 82-A, 83-A, 84-A, 85-A, 86-A, 87-A, 88-A, 89-A, 90-A,
91-A, 92-A, 93-A, 94-A, 95-A, 96-A, 97-A, 98-A, 99-A, 100-A,
101-A, 102-A, 103-A, 104-A, 105-A, 106-A, 107-A, 108-A, 109-A, 110-A

## Full Mock Test 01

# Assam VFA Mock Test 01

Pattern: 100 MCQs, 100 marks, 120 minutes.

## Biology and Animal Husbandry - 40 Questions

1. The functional unit of heredity is:
   A. Chromosome
   B. Gene
   C. Ribosome
   D. Lysosome

2. Mendel's law of segregation is best observed during:
   A. Fertilization
   B. Gamete formation
   C. Seed germination
   D. Pollination

3. DNA replication is described as:
   A. Conservative
   B. Semi-conservative
   C. Dispersive only
   D. Random

4. The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:
   A. Ribosome
   B. Mitochondria
   C. Golgi body
   D. Vacuole

5. The hormone responsible for milk let-down in animals is:
   A. Insulin
   B. Oxytocin
   C. Thyroxine
   D. Adrenaline

6. Rinderpest is a disease mainly associated with:
   A. Fish
   B. Cattle
   C. Poultry
   D. Bees

7. Foot and Mouth Disease is caused by:
   A. Bacteria
   B. Virus
   C. Fungus
   D. Protozoa

8. The scientific name of cattle is:
   A. Bos indicus
   B. Capra hircus
   C. Ovis aries
   D. Equus caballus

9. A balanced ration for livestock must contain:
   A. Only protein
   B. Only minerals
   C. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and water
   D. Only roughage

10. The gestation period of cow is approximately:
    A. 90 days
    B. 150 days
    C. 280 days
    D. 365 days

11. The causative organism of anthrax is:
    A. Bacillus anthracis
    B. Salmonella typhi
    C. Plasmodium vivax
    D. Vibrio cholerae

12. The process of formation of gametes is called:
    A. Fertilization
    B. Gametogenesis
    C. Pollination
    D. Cleavage

13. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin B12
    C. Vitamin C
    D. Vitamin K

14. The green pigment in plants is:
    A. Haemoglobin
    B. Chlorophyll
    C. Carotene
    D. Xanthophyll

15. The main site of photosynthesis is:
    A. Root hair
    B. Leaf
    C. Flower
    D. Seed coat

16. Artificial insemination is mainly used for:
    A. Disease diagnosis
    B. Genetic improvement and controlled breeding
    C. Feed preservation
    D. Vaccine storage

17. The normal body temperature of adult cattle is approximately:
    A. 35 C
    B. 38.5 C
    C. 42 C
    D. 45 C

18. Broilers are reared mainly for:
    A. Egg production
    B. Meat production
    C. Wool production
    D. Milk production

19. Layers are poultry birds maintained mainly for:
    A. Egg production
    B. Meat production
    C. Draught work
    D. Honey production

20. The first milk secreted after calving is called:
    A. Whey
    B. Colostrum
    C. Casein
    D. Serum

21. The organelle known as the powerhouse of the cell is:
    A. Ribosome
    B. Mitochondria
    C. Nucleus
    D. Chloroplast

22. Pollination by wind is called:
    A. Entomophily
    B. Hydrophily
    C. Anemophily
    D. Ornithophily

23. The male reproductive part of a flower is:
    A. Carpel
    B. Stamen
    C. Sepal
    D. Ovule

24. The basic unit of classification is:
    A. Genus
    B. Species
    C. Family
    D. Order

25. Which blood cells help in clotting?
    A. RBC
    B. WBC
    C. Platelets
    D. Plasma

26. The vaccine against rabies is given to prevent a disease caused by:
    A. Virus
    B. Bacteria
    C. Fungus
    D. Helminth

27. The major protein in milk is:
    A. Keratin
    B. Casein
    C. Collagen
    D. Actin

28. Pasteurization of milk is done mainly to:
    A. Increase fat content
    B. Destroy pathogenic microorganisms
    C. Add minerals
    D. Change color

29. The study of insects is called:
    A. Ornithology
    B. Entomology
    C. Mycology
    D. Ichthyology

30. Which is a zoonotic disease?
    A. Brucellosis
    B. Scurvy
    C. Beriberi
    D. Rickets

31. The smallest infectious agent among the following is:
    A. Virus
    B. Bacterium
    C. Fungus
    D. Alga

32. The enzyme present in saliva is:
    A. Pepsin
    B. Ptyalin
    C. Trypsin
    D. Lipase

33. The largest gland in the human body is:
    A. Pancreas
    B. Liver
    C. Thyroid
    D. Pituitary

34. Which mineral is important for bone and teeth formation?
    A. Calcium
    B. Sodium
    C. Chlorine
    D. Iodine

35. The term "breed" refers to animals of the same species with:
    A. Similar inherited characteristics
    B. Same age only
    C. Same body weight only
    D. Same disease history only

36. A common internal parasite of livestock is:
    A. Roundworm
    B. Housefly
    C. Mosquito
    D. Tick

37. The science of improving livestock through selection and mating is:
    A. Agronomy
    B. Animal breeding
    C. Pathology
    D. Ecology

38. The main objective of vaccination is to:
    A. Cure fractures
    B. Prevent specific infectious diseases
    C. Increase body weight instantly
    D. Remove external parasites

39. The vector of malaria is:
    A. Female Anopheles mosquito
    B. Housefly
    C. Tick
    D. Louse

40. Biodiversity means:
    A. Variety of life forms
    B. Only forest area
    C. Only animal population
    D. Only crop yield

## Chemistry - 20 Questions

41. The SI unit of amount of substance is:
    A. Gram
    B. Mole
    C. Kilogram
    D. Litre

42. Atomic number is equal to the number of:
    A. Neutrons
    B. Protons
    C. Protons plus neutrons
    D. Electrons plus neutrons

43. pH less than 7 indicates:
    A. Acidic solution
    B. Basic solution
    C. Neutral solution
    D. Saturated solution

44. The chemical formula of methane is:
    A. CH4
    B. C2H6
    C. CO2
    D. C2H4

45. Avogadro's number is approximately:
    A. 6.022 x 10^23
    B. 9.8
    C. 3.14
    D. 1.6 x 10^-19

46. Oxidation involves:
    A. Gain of electrons
    B. Loss of electrons
    C. No electron change
    D. Only proton loss

47. The gas liberated when acids react with carbonates is:
    A. Oxygen
    B. Hydrogen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Nitrogen

48. Common salt is:
    A. NaCl
    B. KCl
    C. CaCO3
    D. NaOH

49. The bond formed by sharing of electrons is:
    A. Ionic bond
    B. Covalent bond
    C. Metallic bond
    D. Hydrogen bond only

50. The functional group of alcohol is:
    A. -COOH
    B. -OH
    C. -CHO
    D. -NH2

51. The process of conversion of liquid into vapour is:
    A. Condensation
    B. Evaporation
    C. Freezing
    D. Sublimation only

52. The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with:
    A. Decrease in temperature
    B. Increase in temperature
    C. Removal of catalyst only
    D. Dilution always

53. The main constituent of natural gas is:
    A. Methane
    B. Ethyne
    C. Benzene
    D. Propanol

54. Hard water contains salts of:
    A. Calcium and magnesium
    B. Sodium and potassium only
    C. Silver and gold
    D. Hydrogen and oxygen

55. The monomer of protein is:
    A. Glucose
    B. Amino acid
    C. Fatty acid
    D. Nucleotide

56. The electrode at which reduction occurs is:
    A. Cathode
    B. Anode
    C. Salt bridge
    D. Electrolyte

57. The chemical formula of washing soda is:
    A. Na2CO3.10H2O
    B. NaHCO3
    C. CaOCl2
    D. NaCl

58. A catalyst:
    A. Changes reaction rate
    B. Is always consumed completely
    C. Changes the final products only
    D. Stops all reactions

59. The IUPAC name of CH3COOH is:
    A. Methanoic acid
    B. Ethanoic acid
    C. Propanoic acid
    D. Butanoic acid

60. A buffer solution resists change in:
    A. Temperature
    B. pH
    C. Volume
    D. Pressure

## Physics - 20 Questions

61. The SI unit of force is:
    A. Joule
    B. Newton
    C. Watt
    D. Pascal

62. Work done is zero when force and displacement are:
    A. In same direction
    B. Perpendicular
    C. Opposite direction
    D. At 45 degrees

63. Acceleration due to gravity near earth is approximately:
    A. 9.8 m/s2
    B. 3.0 m/s2
    C. 1.6 m/s2
    D. 100 m/s2

64. The SI unit of power is:
    A. Joule
    B. Watt
    C. Newton
    D. Coulomb

65. The device used to measure electric current is:
    A. Voltmeter
    B. Ammeter
    C. Barometer
    D. Thermometer

66. Ohm's law is:
    A. V = IR
    B. P = VI only
    C. F = ma
    D. E = mc2

67. The speed of light in vacuum is:
    A. 3 x 10^8 m/s
    B. 3 x 10^6 m/s
    C. 340 m/s
    D. 1500 m/s

68. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
    A. Real and inverted
    B. Virtual and erect
    C. Real and erect
    D. Virtual and inverted

69. Sound waves are:
    A. Transverse electromagnetic waves
    B. Longitudinal mechanical waves
    C. Static waves only
    D. Matter waves only

70. Heat transfer in vacuum occurs mainly by:
    A. Conduction
    B. Convection
    C. Radiation
    D. Evaporation

71. The unit of frequency is:
    A. Hertz
    B. Tesla
    C. Weber
    D. Ohm

72. Momentum is equal to:
    A. Mass x velocity
    B. Force x distance
    C. Power x time
    D. Voltage x current

73. A convex lens is also called:
    A. Diverging lens
    B. Converging lens
    C. Plane lens
    D. Cylindrical mirror

74. The SI unit of charge is:
    A. Coulomb
    B. Ampere
    C. Volt
    D. Ohm

75. A fuse is connected in:
    A. Neutral wire only
    B. Live wire
    C. Earth wire only
    D. Parallel with bulb always

76. The resistance of a conductor depends on:
    A. Length, area and material
    B. Color only
    C. Weight only
    D. Shape only

77. The nucleus of an atom contains:
    A. Electrons only
    B. Protons and neutrons
    C. Neutrons and electrons
    D. Photons only

78. The phenomenon responsible for rainbow formation is:
    A. Dispersion
    B. Evaporation
    C. Magnetism
    D. Sublimation

79. The first law of thermodynamics is based on conservation of:
    A. Charge
    B. Energy
    C. Momentum only
    D. Mass only

80. Semiconductor materials include:
    A. Silicon and germanium
    B. Copper and silver
    C. Iron and steel
    D. Wood and rubber

## General Awareness - 20 Questions

81. The capital of Assam is:
    A. Guwahati
    B. Dispur
    C. Jorhat
    D. Silchar

82. Kaziranga National Park is famous for:
    A. One-horned rhinoceros
    B. Asiatic lion
    C. Hangul
    D. Snow leopard

83. The Brahmaputra enters Assam from:
    A. Arunachal Pradesh
    B. Meghalaya
    C. Nagaland
    D. Tripura

84. Bihu is associated with:
    A. Assam
    B. Kerala
    C. Punjab
    D. Rajasthan

85. The Constitution of India came into force on:
    A. 15 August 1947
    B. 26 January 1950
    C. 2 October 1949
    D. 26 November 1947

86. The minimum voting age in India is:
    A. 16 years
    B. 18 years
    C. 21 years
    D. 25 years

87. The highest civilian award in India is:
    A. Padma Shri
    B. Padma Bhushan
    C. Bharat Ratna
    D. Param Vir Chakra

88. The National Livestock Mission is related to:
    A. Space research
    B. Livestock sector development
    C. Rail transport
    D. Banking reform

89. The official language widely used in Assam administration is:
    A. Assamese
    B. Tamil
    C. Gujarati
    D. Marathi

90. The animal husbandry sector mainly deals with:
    A. Rearing and care of livestock
    B. Mining
    C. Road construction
    D. Textile printing

91. The largest river island often associated with Assam is:
    A. Majuli
    B. Diu
    C. Minicoy
    D. Elephanta

92. The disease rabies is commonly transmitted by:
    A. Bite of infected animal
    B. Drinking clean water
    C. Touching plants
    D. Eating rice

93. The Election Commission of India conducts:
    A. Elections
    B. Census only
    C. Court trials
    D. Railway exams

94. The Governor of a state is appointed by:
    A. Chief Minister
    B. President of India
    C. Speaker
    D. High Court

95. The Assam Milk, Meat and Egg Mission is linked with:
    A. Animal protein production and livestock development
    B. River cleaning only
    C. Textile exports
    D. Space science

96. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is known for:
    A. One-horned rhinoceros
    B. Camel
    C. Penguin
    D. Yak

97. The first schedule of the Indian Constitution lists:
    A. States and Union Territories
    B. Fundamental Duties
    C. Languages
    D. Oaths

98. The main occupation of rural livestock farmers includes:
    A. Dairy, poultry, piggery, goatery and related activities
    B. Shipbuilding only
    C. Software coding only
    D. Film production only

99. The headquarters of the Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Department, Assam mentioned in the notice is:
    A. Chenikuthi, Guwahati
    B. Tezpur
    C. Dibrugarh
    D. Dhubri

100. The application mode for Assam VFA 2026 is:
     A. Offline only
     B. Online through official website
     C. Walk-in only
     D. Postal only

## Answer Key

1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C,
11-A, 12-B, 13-A, 14-B, 15-B, 16-B, 17-B, 18-B, 19-A, 20-B,
21-B, 22-C, 23-B, 24-B, 25-C, 26-A, 27-B, 28-B, 29-B, 30-A,
31-A, 32-B, 33-B, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-B, 38-B, 39-A, 40-A,
41-B, 42-B, 43-A, 44-A, 45-A, 46-B, 47-C, 48-A, 49-B, 50-B,
51-B, 52-B, 53-A, 54-A, 55-B, 56-A, 57-A, 58-A, 59-B, 60-B,
61-B, 62-B, 63-A, 64-B, 65-B, 66-A, 67-A, 68-B, 69-B, 70-C,
71-A, 72-A, 73-B, 74-A, 75-B, 76-A, 77-B, 78-A, 79-B, 80-A,
81-B, 82-A, 83-A, 84-A, 85-B, 86-B, 87-C, 88-B, 89-A, 90-A,
91-A, 92-A, 93-A, 94-B, 95-A, 96-A, 97-A, 98-A, 99-A, 100-B

## Full Mock Test 02

# Assam VFA Mock Test 02

Pattern: 100 MCQs, 100 marks, 120 minutes.
Focus: harder Biology, animal husbandry, Assam GK, and science basics.

## Biology and Animal Husbandry - 40 Questions

1. Colostrum is important for newborn calves mainly because it contains:
   A. High sugar only
   B. Maternal antibodies
   C. Antibiotics only
   D. Extra water only

2. Mastitis affects the:
   A. Liver
   B. Udder
   C. Hoof
   D. Eye

3. A disease that can spread from animals to humans is called:
   A. Deficiency disease
   B. Zoonotic disease
   C. Genetic disorder
   D. Metabolic syndrome

4. Brucellosis in livestock commonly causes:
   A. Abortion and reproductive problems
   B. Feather loss only
   C. Night blindness
   D. Leaf curling

5. The main purpose of deworming livestock is to control:
   A. Internal parasites
   B. Viral fever only
   C. Bone fracture
   D. Genetic defects

6. The best immediate control step for a suspected contagious animal disease is:
   A. Mix the sick animal with the herd
   B. Isolate the sick animal
   C. Stop water for all animals
   D. Sell the animal immediately

7. The usual incubation period of chicken egg is about:
   A. 7 days
   B. 14 days
   C. 21 days
   D. 60 days

8. A heifer is:
   A. Young female cattle before first calving
   B. Adult male cattle
   C. Castrated male goat
   D. Newborn piglet

9. Castration is commonly done in male livestock to:
   A. Improve manageability and meat quality
   B. Increase egg production
   C. Cause mastitis
   D. Stop digestion

10. The rumen is part of the digestive system of:
    A. Ruminants
    B. Birds only
    C. Fish only
    D. Insects only

11. A cow has how many stomach compartments?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

12. The four compartments of a ruminant stomach are:
    A. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
    B. Crop, gizzard, liver, spleen
    C. Ileum, jejunum, caecum, colon
    D. Atrium, ventricle, valve, artery

13. The milk sugar is:
    A. Lactose
    B. Sucrose
    C. Maltose
    D. Fructose

14. The act of parturition in cattle is called:
    A. Calving
    B. Lambing
    C. Farrowing
    D. Foaling

15. Parturition in pigs is called:
    A. Calving
    B. Lambing
    C. Farrowing
    D. Kidding

16. A female goat is called:
    A. Doe
    B. Ewe
    C. Mare
    D. Sow

17. A female sheep is called:
    A. Doe
    B. Ewe
    C. Sow
    D. Queen

18. Fodder crops are grown mainly for:
    A. Animal feed
    B. Metal extraction
    C. Road building
    D. Textile dyeing

19. Silage is:
    A. Preserved green fodder
    B. Dry mineral mixture
    C. A poultry disease
    D. A breed of cattle

20. Hay is prepared by:
    A. Drying fodder
    B. Freezing milk
    C. Boiling meat
    D. Grinding bone

21. The major function of haemoglobin is:
    A. Transport oxygen
    B. Digest protein
    C. Produce bile
    D. Store urine

22. The universal recipient blood group is:
    A. A
    B. B
    C. AB
    D. O

23. Meiosis results in:
    A. Four haploid cells
    B. Two diploid cells only
    C. One diploid cell
    D. No chromosome change

24. Crossing over occurs during:
    A. Prophase I of meiosis
    B. Metaphase of mitosis
    C. Cytokinesis only
    D. Fertilization only

25. The hormone insulin is secreted by:
    A. Pancreas
    B. Thyroid
    C. Pituitary
    D. Adrenal cortex

26. The deficiency of iodine causes:
    A. Goitre
    B. Scurvy
    C. Rickets
    D. Anaemia

27. The causative organism of tuberculosis is:
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    B. Bacillus anthracis
    C. Vibrio cholerae
    D. Entamoeba histolytica

28. The vector of dengue is:
    A. Aedes mosquito
    B. Housefly
    C. Sandfly
    D. Tick only

29. The process by which plants lose water vapour is:
    A. Transpiration
    B. Respiration
    C. Germination
    D. Fertilization

30. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by:
    A. Guard cells
    B. Root hairs
    C. Xylem vessels only
    D. Phloem fibres only

31. The full form of ATP is:
    A. Adenosine triphosphate
    B. Amino transfer protein
    C. Active tissue plasma
    D. Animal transport pigment

32. Which one is a greenhouse gas?
    A. Carbon dioxide
    B. Oxygen
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Argon

33. The pyramid of energy is always:
    A. Upright
    B. Inverted
    C. Circular
    D. Absent

34. PCR is used for:
    A. Amplification of DNA
    B. Digestion of fat
    C. Measuring blood pressure
    D. Producing bile

35. Bt cotton contains a gene from:
    A. Bacillus thuringiensis
    B. Rhizobium
    C. Lactobacillus
    D. Yeast

36. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation occurs in root nodules of:
    A. Leguminous plants
    B. Rice only
    C. Wheat only
    D. Mango

37. The study of fungi is:
    A. Mycology
    B. Virology
    C. Bacteriology
    D. Ecology only

38. The edible part of milk mainly contains water, fat, protein, lactose and:
    A. Minerals
    B. Petrol
    C. Cellulose fibres only
    D. Sand

39. Which is an ectoparasite?
    A. Tick
    B. Roundworm
    C. Tapeworm
    D. Liver fluke

40. The aim of clean milk production is to reduce:
    A. Contamination
    B. Lactose
    C. Calcium
    D. Protein

## Chemistry - 20 Questions

41. The number of moles in 18 g of water is:
    A. 0.5
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 18

42. Isotopes have same:
    A. Atomic number
    B. Mass number
    C. Number of neutrons
    D. Physical mass only

43. The shape of methane molecule is:
    A. Linear
    B. Tetrahedral
    C. Trigonal planar
    D. Octahedral

44. A solution with pH 14 is:
    A. Strongly acidic
    B. Strongly basic
    C. Neutral
    D. Weakly acidic

45. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is:
    A. -2
    B. +2
    C. 0
    D. +1

46. The gas used in hydrogenation of oils is:
    A. Hydrogen
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Oxygen
    D. Chlorine

47. The process of removal of hardness of water is called:
    A. Softening
    B. Distillation only
    C. Sublimation
    D. Fermentation

48. The functional group in aldehydes is:
    A. -CHO
    B. -COOH
    C. -OH
    D. -CO-

49. Benzene has molecular formula:
    A. C6H6
    B. CH4
    C. C2H5OH
    D. C6H12O6

50. Which is a noble gas?
    A. Neon
    B. Chlorine
    C. Oxygen
    D. Hydrogen

51. The pH of pure water at 25 C is:
    A. 0
    B. 7
    C. 10
    D. 14

52. The molar mass of CO2 is:
    A. 28 g/mol
    B. 32 g/mol
    C. 44 g/mol
    D. 18 g/mol

53. The common name of calcium oxide is:
    A. Quicklime
    B. Slaked lime
    C. Gypsum
    D. Baking soda

54. The chemical formula of baking soda is:
    A. NaHCO3
    B. Na2CO3
    C. CaCO3
    D. NaCl

55. A substance that donates H+ ion is:
    A. Acid
    B. Base
    C. Salt
    D. Neutral oxide

56. The process in which a substance gains oxygen is:
    A. Oxidation
    B. Reduction
    C. Neutralization
    D. Precipitation

57. The main component of biogas is:
    A. Methane
    B. Carbon monoxide
    C. Oxygen
    D. Sulphur dioxide

58. Glucose has molecular formula:
    A. C6H12O6
    B. C2H5OH
    C. CH3COOH
    D. NaCl

59. Proteins are polymers of:
    A. Amino acids
    B. Glucose
    C. Fatty acids
    D. Nucleotides only

60. The common oxidation state of sodium is:
    A. +1
    B. -1
    C. +2
    D. 0 only

## Physics - 20 Questions

61. Dimensional formula of velocity is:
    A. LT^-1
    B. LT^-2
    C. ML^2T^-2
    D. MLT^-1

62. If mass is doubled and velocity remains same, kinetic energy becomes:
    A. Half
    B. Double
    C. Four times
    D. Same

63. The unit of pressure is:
    A. Pascal
    B. Joule
    C. Watt
    D. Tesla

64. A body floats when its density is:
    A. Less than the liquid
    B. Greater than the liquid always
    C. Equal to air only
    D. Infinite

65. The boiling point of water at normal pressure is:
    A. 0 C
    B. 37 C
    C. 100 C
    D. 273 C

66. In a series circuit, current is:
    A. Same through all components
    B. Different through every component always
    C. Zero
    D. Independent of voltage

67. The equivalent resistance of two 2 ohm resistors in series is:
    A. 1 ohm
    B. 2 ohm
    C. 4 ohm
    D. 8 ohm

68. The equivalent resistance of two 2 ohm resistors in parallel is:
    A. 1 ohm
    B. 2 ohm
    C. 4 ohm
    D. 8 ohm

69. A concave mirror can form:
    A. Real and virtual images depending on object position
    B. Only virtual image
    C. Only no image
    D. Only erect image

70. The unit of magnetic field is:
    A. Tesla
    B. Weber
    C. Ohm
    D. Coulomb

71. The frequency of audible sound for humans is approximately:
    A. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
    B. 1 Hz to 5 Hz
    C. 1 MHz to 2 MHz
    D. Above 1 GHz only

72. The energy stored in a stretched spring is:
    A. Elastic potential energy
    B. Chemical energy only
    C. Nuclear energy
    D. Sound energy

73. The law of conservation of momentum applies when:
    A. No external force acts
    B. Friction is very high always
    C. Heat is supplied
    D. Light is reflected

74. The focal length of a plane mirror is:
    A. Infinite
    B. Zero
    C. 10 cm
    D. 1 cm

75. The photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of:
    A. Light
    B. Sound
    C. Heat only
    D. Air

76. The charge of an electron is:
    A. Negative
    B. Positive
    C. Neutral
    D. Variable only

77. A transformer works on:
    A. Electromagnetic induction
    B. Photoelectric effect
    C. Capillary action
    D. Diffusion

78. The unit of electric power consumed commercially is:
    A. Kilowatt-hour
    B. Newton
    C. Pascal
    D. Ampere

79. Inertia depends on:
    A. Mass
    B. Color
    C. Temperature only
    D. Shape only

80. The refractive index of a medium is related to:
    A. Speed of light in that medium
    B. Mass of sound
    C. Weight of liquid only
    D. Magnetic pole strength only

## General Awareness - 20 Questions

81. The official website for Assam AHVD applications mentioned in the notice is:
    A. animalhusbandry.assam.gov.in
    B. upsc.gov.in
    C. ssc.nic.in
    D. cbse.gov.in

82. The VFA notice requires the candidate to be a permanent resident of:
    A. Assam
    B. Kerala
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Punjab

83. The VFA selected candidates must undergo training for:
    A. 1 year
    B. 1 month
    C. 3 years
    D. 6 months

84. The training is in elementary knowledge of:
    A. Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science
    B. Mechanical engineering
    C. Banking
    D. Law

85. The School of Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry mentioned in the notice is at:
    A. Ghungoor, Silchar
    B. Shillong
    C. Agartala
    D. Kohima

86. The minimum age as on 01/01/2026 is:
    A. 18 years
    B. 21 years
    C. 25 years
    D. 30 years

87. The maximum age for general category as on 01/01/2026 is:
    A. 35 years
    B. 40 years
    C. 45 years
    D. 50 years

88. The application fee for the VFA recruitment is:
    A. No fee
    B. Rs 100
    C. Rs 500
    D. Rs 1000

89. The VFA pay band mentioned is:
    A. Rs 14,000 to Rs 70,000
    B. Rs 5,200 to Rs 20,200
    C. Rs 35,400 to Rs 1,12,400
    D. Rs 18,000 fixed

90. The grade pay mentioned is:
    A. Rs 6,200
    B. Rs 4,200
    C. Rs 2,800
    D. Rs 10,000

91. The one-horned rhinoceros is strongly associated with:
    A. Kaziranga
    B. Gir
    C. Ranthambore
    D. Valley of Flowers

92. Manas National Park is located in:
    A. Assam
    B. Gujarat
    C. Himachal Pradesh
    D. Tamil Nadu

93. The Brahmaputra is also known in Tibet as:
    A. Yarlung Tsangpo
    B. Ganga
    C. Yamuna
    D. Teesta

94. The traditional Assamese scarf is called:
    A. Gamosa
    B. Pheran
    C. Pagri
    D. Mundu

95. Panchayati Raj in India is related to:
    A. Local self-government
    B. Supreme Court only
    C. Foreign affairs
    D. Military command

96. Fundamental Rights are included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
    A. Part III
    B. Part IV
    C. Part V
    D. Part IX

97. The President of India is elected for a term of:
    A. 5 years
    B. 4 years
    C. 6 years
    D. 2 years

98. Livestock Census is important for:
    A. Planning animal husbandry policies
    B. Measuring rainfall only
    C. Counting trains
    D. Issuing passports

99. Fodder development is important because it supports:
    A. Animal nutrition
    B. Road traffic
    C. Mineral mining
    D. Banking

100. Livestock Health and Disease Control focuses on:
     A. Disease prevention and control in animals
     B. Computer education only
     C. Textile design
     D. Building bridges

## Answer Key

1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A, 5-A, 6-B, 7-C, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A,
11-D, 12-A, 13-A, 14-A, 15-C, 16-A, 17-B, 18-A, 19-A, 20-A,
21-A, 22-C, 23-A, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-A, 28-A, 29-A, 30-A,
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-A, 38-A, 39-A, 40-A,
41-B, 42-A, 43-B, 44-B, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-A, 50-A,
51-B, 52-C, 53-A, 54-A, 55-A, 56-A, 57-A, 58-A, 59-A, 60-A,
61-A, 62-B, 63-A, 64-A, 65-C, 66-A, 67-C, 68-A, 69-A, 70-A,
71-A, 72-A, 73-A, 74-A, 75-A, 76-A, 77-A, 78-A, 79-A, 80-A,
81-A, 82-A, 83-A, 84-A, 85-A, 86-A, 87-B, 88-A, 89-A, 90-A,
91-A, 92-A, 93-A, 94-A, 95-A, 96-A, 97-A, 98-A, 99-A, 100-A