# Assam VFA Mock Test 02

Pattern: 100 MCQs, 100 marks, 120 minutes.
Focus: harder Biology, animal husbandry, Assam GK, and science basics.

## Biology and Animal Husbandry - 40 Questions

1. Colostrum is important for newborn calves mainly because it contains:
   A. High sugar only
   B. Maternal antibodies
   C. Antibiotics only
   D. Extra water only

2. Mastitis affects the:
   A. Liver
   B. Udder
   C. Hoof
   D. Eye

3. A disease that can spread from animals to humans is called:
   A. Deficiency disease
   B. Zoonotic disease
   C. Genetic disorder
   D. Metabolic syndrome

4. Brucellosis in livestock commonly causes:
   A. Abortion and reproductive problems
   B. Feather loss only
   C. Night blindness
   D. Leaf curling

5. The main purpose of deworming livestock is to control:
   A. Internal parasites
   B. Viral fever only
   C. Bone fracture
   D. Genetic defects

6. The best immediate control step for a suspected contagious animal disease is:
   A. Mix the sick animal with the herd
   B. Isolate the sick animal
   C. Stop water for all animals
   D. Sell the animal immediately

7. The usual incubation period of chicken egg is about:
   A. 7 days
   B. 14 days
   C. 21 days
   D. 60 days

8. A heifer is:
   A. Young female cattle before first calving
   B. Adult male cattle
   C. Castrated male goat
   D. Newborn piglet

9. Castration is commonly done in male livestock to:
   A. Improve manageability and meat quality
   B. Increase egg production
   C. Cause mastitis
   D. Stop digestion

10. The rumen is part of the digestive system of:
    A. Ruminants
    B. Birds only
    C. Fish only
    D. Insects only

11. A cow has how many stomach compartments?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

12. The four compartments of a ruminant stomach are:
    A. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
    B. Crop, gizzard, liver, spleen
    C. Ileum, jejunum, caecum, colon
    D. Atrium, ventricle, valve, artery

13. The milk sugar is:
    A. Lactose
    B. Sucrose
    C. Maltose
    D. Fructose

14. The act of parturition in cattle is called:
    A. Calving
    B. Lambing
    C. Farrowing
    D. Foaling

15. Parturition in pigs is called:
    A. Calving
    B. Lambing
    C. Farrowing
    D. Kidding

16. A female goat is called:
    A. Doe
    B. Ewe
    C. Mare
    D. Sow

17. A female sheep is called:
    A. Doe
    B. Ewe
    C. Sow
    D. Queen

18. Fodder crops are grown mainly for:
    A. Animal feed
    B. Metal extraction
    C. Road building
    D. Textile dyeing

19. Silage is:
    A. Preserved green fodder
    B. Dry mineral mixture
    C. A poultry disease
    D. A breed of cattle

20. Hay is prepared by:
    A. Drying fodder
    B. Freezing milk
    C. Boiling meat
    D. Grinding bone

21. The major function of haemoglobin is:
    A. Transport oxygen
    B. Digest protein
    C. Produce bile
    D. Store urine

22. The universal recipient blood group is:
    A. A
    B. B
    C. AB
    D. O

23. Meiosis results in:
    A. Four haploid cells
    B. Two diploid cells only
    C. One diploid cell
    D. No chromosome change

24. Crossing over occurs during:
    A. Prophase I of meiosis
    B. Metaphase of mitosis
    C. Cytokinesis only
    D. Fertilization only

25. The hormone insulin is secreted by:
    A. Pancreas
    B. Thyroid
    C. Pituitary
    D. Adrenal cortex

26. The deficiency of iodine causes:
    A. Goitre
    B. Scurvy
    C. Rickets
    D. Anaemia

27. The causative organism of tuberculosis is:
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    B. Bacillus anthracis
    C. Vibrio cholerae
    D. Entamoeba histolytica

28. The vector of dengue is:
    A. Aedes mosquito
    B. Housefly
    C. Sandfly
    D. Tick only

29. The process by which plants lose water vapour is:
    A. Transpiration
    B. Respiration
    C. Germination
    D. Fertilization

30. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by:
    A. Guard cells
    B. Root hairs
    C. Xylem vessels only
    D. Phloem fibres only

31. The full form of ATP is:
    A. Adenosine triphosphate
    B. Amino transfer protein
    C. Active tissue plasma
    D. Animal transport pigment

32. Which one is a greenhouse gas?
    A. Carbon dioxide
    B. Oxygen
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Argon

33. The pyramid of energy is always:
    A. Upright
    B. Inverted
    C. Circular
    D. Absent

34. PCR is used for:
    A. Amplification of DNA
    B. Digestion of fat
    C. Measuring blood pressure
    D. Producing bile

35. Bt cotton contains a gene from:
    A. Bacillus thuringiensis
    B. Rhizobium
    C. Lactobacillus
    D. Yeast

36. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation occurs in root nodules of:
    A. Leguminous plants
    B. Rice only
    C. Wheat only
    D. Mango

37. The study of fungi is:
    A. Mycology
    B. Virology
    C. Bacteriology
    D. Ecology only

38. The edible part of milk mainly contains water, fat, protein, lactose and:
    A. Minerals
    B. Petrol
    C. Cellulose fibres only
    D. Sand

39. Which is an ectoparasite?
    A. Tick
    B. Roundworm
    C. Tapeworm
    D. Liver fluke

40. The aim of clean milk production is to reduce:
    A. Contamination
    B. Lactose
    C. Calcium
    D. Protein

## Chemistry - 20 Questions

41. The number of moles in 18 g of water is:
    A. 0.5
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 18

42. Isotopes have same:
    A. Atomic number
    B. Mass number
    C. Number of neutrons
    D. Physical mass only

43. The shape of methane molecule is:
    A. Linear
    B. Tetrahedral
    C. Trigonal planar
    D. Octahedral

44. A solution with pH 14 is:
    A. Strongly acidic
    B. Strongly basic
    C. Neutral
    D. Weakly acidic

45. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is:
    A. -2
    B. +2
    C. 0
    D. +1

46. The gas used in hydrogenation of oils is:
    A. Hydrogen
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Oxygen
    D. Chlorine

47. The process of removal of hardness of water is called:
    A. Softening
    B. Distillation only
    C. Sublimation
    D. Fermentation

48. The functional group in aldehydes is:
    A. -CHO
    B. -COOH
    C. -OH
    D. -CO-

49. Benzene has molecular formula:
    A. C6H6
    B. CH4
    C. C2H5OH
    D. C6H12O6

50. Which is a noble gas?
    A. Neon
    B. Chlorine
    C. Oxygen
    D. Hydrogen

51. The pH of pure water at 25 C is:
    A. 0
    B. 7
    C. 10
    D. 14

52. The molar mass of CO2 is:
    A. 28 g/mol
    B. 32 g/mol
    C. 44 g/mol
    D. 18 g/mol

53. The common name of calcium oxide is:
    A. Quicklime
    B. Slaked lime
    C. Gypsum
    D. Baking soda

54. The chemical formula of baking soda is:
    A. NaHCO3
    B. Na2CO3
    C. CaCO3
    D. NaCl

55. A substance that donates H+ ion is:
    A. Acid
    B. Base
    C. Salt
    D. Neutral oxide

56. The process in which a substance gains oxygen is:
    A. Oxidation
    B. Reduction
    C. Neutralization
    D. Precipitation

57. The main component of biogas is:
    A. Methane
    B. Carbon monoxide
    C. Oxygen
    D. Sulphur dioxide

58. Glucose has molecular formula:
    A. C6H12O6
    B. C2H5OH
    C. CH3COOH
    D. NaCl

59. Proteins are polymers of:
    A. Amino acids
    B. Glucose
    C. Fatty acids
    D. Nucleotides only

60. The common oxidation state of sodium is:
    A. +1
    B. -1
    C. +2
    D. 0 only

## Physics - 20 Questions

61. Dimensional formula of velocity is:
    A. LT^-1
    B. LT^-2
    C. ML^2T^-2
    D. MLT^-1

62. If mass is doubled and velocity remains same, kinetic energy becomes:
    A. Half
    B. Double
    C. Four times
    D. Same

63. The unit of pressure is:
    A. Pascal
    B. Joule
    C. Watt
    D. Tesla

64. A body floats when its density is:
    A. Less than the liquid
    B. Greater than the liquid always
    C. Equal to air only
    D. Infinite

65. The boiling point of water at normal pressure is:
    A. 0 C
    B. 37 C
    C. 100 C
    D. 273 C

66. In a series circuit, current is:
    A. Same through all components
    B. Different through every component always
    C. Zero
    D. Independent of voltage

67. The equivalent resistance of two 2 ohm resistors in series is:
    A. 1 ohm
    B. 2 ohm
    C. 4 ohm
    D. 8 ohm

68. The equivalent resistance of two 2 ohm resistors in parallel is:
    A. 1 ohm
    B. 2 ohm
    C. 4 ohm
    D. 8 ohm

69. A concave mirror can form:
    A. Real and virtual images depending on object position
    B. Only virtual image
    C. Only no image
    D. Only erect image

70. The unit of magnetic field is:
    A. Tesla
    B. Weber
    C. Ohm
    D. Coulomb

71. The frequency of audible sound for humans is approximately:
    A. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
    B. 1 Hz to 5 Hz
    C. 1 MHz to 2 MHz
    D. Above 1 GHz only

72. The energy stored in a stretched spring is:
    A. Elastic potential energy
    B. Chemical energy only
    C. Nuclear energy
    D. Sound energy

73. The law of conservation of momentum applies when:
    A. No external force acts
    B. Friction is very high always
    C. Heat is supplied
    D. Light is reflected

74. The focal length of a plane mirror is:
    A. Infinite
    B. Zero
    C. 10 cm
    D. 1 cm

75. The photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of:
    A. Light
    B. Sound
    C. Heat only
    D. Air

76. The charge of an electron is:
    A. Negative
    B. Positive
    C. Neutral
    D. Variable only

77. A transformer works on:
    A. Electromagnetic induction
    B. Photoelectric effect
    C. Capillary action
    D. Diffusion

78. The unit of electric power consumed commercially is:
    A. Kilowatt-hour
    B. Newton
    C. Pascal
    D. Ampere

79. Inertia depends on:
    A. Mass
    B. Color
    C. Temperature only
    D. Shape only

80. The refractive index of a medium is related to:
    A. Speed of light in that medium
    B. Mass of sound
    C. Weight of liquid only
    D. Magnetic pole strength only

## General Awareness - 20 Questions

81. The official website for Assam AHVD applications mentioned in the notice is:
    A. animalhusbandry.assam.gov.in
    B. upsc.gov.in
    C. ssc.nic.in
    D. cbse.gov.in

82. The VFA notice requires the candidate to be a permanent resident of:
    A. Assam
    B. Kerala
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Punjab

83. The VFA selected candidates must undergo training for:
    A. 1 year
    B. 1 month
    C. 3 years
    D. 6 months

84. The training is in elementary knowledge of:
    A. Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science
    B. Mechanical engineering
    C. Banking
    D. Law

85. The School of Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry mentioned in the notice is at:
    A. Ghungoor, Silchar
    B. Shillong
    C. Agartala
    D. Kohima

86. The minimum age as on 01/01/2026 is:
    A. 18 years
    B. 21 years
    C. 25 years
    D. 30 years

87. The maximum age for general category as on 01/01/2026 is:
    A. 35 years
    B. 40 years
    C. 45 years
    D. 50 years

88. The application fee for the VFA recruitment is:
    A. No fee
    B. Rs 100
    C. Rs 500
    D. Rs 1000

89. The VFA pay band mentioned is:
    A. Rs 14,000 to Rs 70,000
    B. Rs 5,200 to Rs 20,200
    C. Rs 35,400 to Rs 1,12,400
    D. Rs 18,000 fixed

90. The grade pay mentioned is:
    A. Rs 6,200
    B. Rs 4,200
    C. Rs 2,800
    D. Rs 10,000

91. The one-horned rhinoceros is strongly associated with:
    A. Kaziranga
    B. Gir
    C. Ranthambore
    D. Valley of Flowers

92. Manas National Park is located in:
    A. Assam
    B. Gujarat
    C. Himachal Pradesh
    D. Tamil Nadu

93. The Brahmaputra is also known in Tibet as:
    A. Yarlung Tsangpo
    B. Ganga
    C. Yamuna
    D. Teesta

94. The traditional Assamese scarf is called:
    A. Gamosa
    B. Pheran
    C. Pagri
    D. Mundu

95. Panchayati Raj in India is related to:
    A. Local self-government
    B. Supreme Court only
    C. Foreign affairs
    D. Military command

96. Fundamental Rights are included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
    A. Part III
    B. Part IV
    C. Part V
    D. Part IX

97. The President of India is elected for a term of:
    A. 5 years
    B. 4 years
    C. 6 years
    D. 2 years

98. Livestock Census is important for:
    A. Planning animal husbandry policies
    B. Measuring rainfall only
    C. Counting trains
    D. Issuing passports

99. Fodder development is important because it supports:
    A. Animal nutrition
    B. Road traffic
    C. Mineral mining
    D. Banking

100. Livestock Health and Disease Control focuses on:
     A. Disease prevention and control in animals
     B. Computer education only
     C. Textile design
     D. Building bridges

## Answer Key

1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A, 5-A, 6-B, 7-C, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A,
11-D, 12-A, 13-A, 14-A, 15-C, 16-A, 17-B, 18-A, 19-A, 20-A,
21-A, 22-C, 23-A, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-A, 28-A, 29-A, 30-A,
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-A, 38-A, 39-A, 40-A,
41-B, 42-A, 43-B, 44-B, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-A, 50-A,
51-B, 52-C, 53-A, 54-A, 55-A, 56-A, 57-A, 58-A, 59-A, 60-A,
61-A, 62-B, 63-A, 64-A, 65-C, 66-A, 67-C, 68-A, 69-A, 70-A,
71-A, 72-A, 73-A, 74-A, 75-A, 76-A, 77-A, 78-A, 79-A, 80-A,
81-A, 82-A, 83-A, 84-A, 85-A, 86-A, 87-B, 88-A, 89-A, 90-A,
91-A, 92-A, 93-A, 94-A, 95-A, 96-A, 97-A, 98-A, 99-A, 100-A